Thanks for your input...
I was wondering about that... cause the only thing that didn't work in my analysis was that my (ex) wife does not show any apparent symptoms... (not any that I could blame on that anyway
)... but everything I read always mentioned the mother (not the father) passing on the problems to children. So do you know for sure if this can be passed by the father? It would explain the one thing that didn't quite line up with the facts.
I did see my regular physician today and he's on board with following this lead. Apparently, I was tested back in 2009 for this and came back negative... but I told him that these tests often came back with false negatives and he was quite open minded to all of it. I also told him I wanted to see a LLMD, not just some disease doctor... again, he was on board with it. Finally, I told him about sending the blood test to that Californian lab I read somewhere here.... Again... he's fine with it. I've got his personal email and will be sending the info, as soon as I find a good LLMD and the lab name again.
I still don't understand the whole stigma surrounding this disease though... neither did my doctor!
Finally, I did read the newbie section yesterday.