What is the science behind Pap Smear screening guidelines?
We know HPV has to be present for cervical dysplasia.
How does a monogamous women in a 15 year marriage who has tested neg-Pap for 20 years / neg HPV DNA for 5 and has had unprotected sex only with her husband, contract HPV?
How does it make sense to continue pap smears at all (nevermind 3 year recommendation or 5 year with HPV DNA)?
And where are the home HPV DNA kits since self-collection has the same false negative rates as clinical collection (looking at you FDA...)?
The elephant in the room seems to be the notion of a unreported infidelity by husband or a lie by wife. But that's insulting and is a risk best assessed and managed personally.
The PAP smear guidelines still seem ridiculous and the industry's attitude is akin to a state mandated inspection program (vs. a service provided to meet demand).