rebecarooni
12-05-2002, 02:09 PM
Looking for opinions here. With the advent of privacy laws, Doctors are not allowed to provide information about their patients without written permission. My question is this, should Doctors be able to use information provided by a wife/husband/mother/father that the patient hasn't voluntarily provided?
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SnowyLynne
12-05-2002, 02:20 PM
NO!only If the person had signed a waiver,or Is under gaurdianship,& the gaurdian signs..........
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SnowyLynne
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SnowyLynne
rebecarooni
12-05-2002, 02:32 PM
Even if it's potentially critical? Life saving even? My example would be: If your SO went to a doctor and didn't tell them that they used illegal drugs and the doctor perscribed something that could interact fatally with their drug of choice, should you tell the Doctor and should the doctor be able to act on it? This is not a parallel to my life, just a continuation od f a discussion I have had at work.
[This message has been edited by rebecarooni (edited 12-05-2002).]
[This message has been edited by rebecarooni (edited 12-05-2002).]
SnowyLynne
12-05-2002, 06:40 PM
In this case yes.The more information the family can give the Dr.the better off the LO Is.My hubby,& I Interact with our Dr.In this way all the time.......
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SnowyLynne
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SnowyLynne
auntjudyg
12-06-2002, 01:23 PM
I don't see any problem with the doctor using information that is volunteered to him/her by a third party. Frankly, I don't quite see what the issue might be - the problem would be between that third party and the patient. I think the doctor would be negligent NOT to consider it.
Problems come with doctor disclosing information; though that can get sticky sometimes, too.
Problems come with doctor disclosing information; though that can get sticky sometimes, too.
rebecarooni
12-06-2002, 03:54 PM
I agree with you aunt.