rockandroller
06-01-2004, 06:24 PM
an expert in the herpes game said that if you already have type one orally, that it's less likely to contract type one in the genitals. everything i've been reading has said otherwise. you could still catch it genitally even if you have it orally. it could be transferred. if that's true, then i'm relived, but once again, confused. any help would be great. three doctors i saw didn't know a damn thing and wrote me off. nice huh?
here's the question that i read...
Member question: My girlfriend gets cold sores. That is the same virus - herpes - right? Can she give me the virus via oral sex?
Warren: Absolutely. However, if you already have HSV-1, then it is unlikely that you would get it genitally if you don't have it there already. If you have ever had a cold sore, then you also have HSV-1 and you could have HSV-1 and never have a cold sore.
here's the question that i read...
Member question: My girlfriend gets cold sores. That is the same virus - herpes - right? Can she give me the virus via oral sex?
Warren: Absolutely. However, if you already have HSV-1, then it is unlikely that you would get it genitally if you don't have it there already. If you have ever had a cold sore, then you also have HSV-1 and you could have HSV-1 and never have a cold sore.

