I was on REMOVED looking through the archives. I came across a statistic that, although made me feel better, seemed somewhat unrealistic. It was stated that a receptive unprotected vaginal intercourse with a known HIV+ male has a .1% - .2% chance of getting infected per episode. Now it said .1%, not 10%. Does that sound right at all? If that were true, wouldn't a lot less females be infected. The chances seem so slim? .1% is what, 1 out of 1000 chance of getting infected per episode, with a known postive person? Can anyone shed some light into the accuracy of this claim? Thanks.

Well, there are lots of factors to consider, such as stage of infection, viral load, ejaculation, etc. I would say that the statistic sounds about right.

This particular scenario does have a lot of varying stats out there though. I have seen the chances of infection rated from anywhere between .1% up to 2%, but never higher than that.

Even at the maximum of 2%, how are males getting HIV through heterosexual activity? Sounds quite minimal. I mean this stat is for females, it technically is lower for males. I am just very worried. I had a protected oral/vaginal encounter with a prostitute, but i can't get my mind over what would happen if i were hiv+. Do most males contract over a 1 time incident?

Do most males contract over a 1 time incident?

No, about one in a thousand. If your experience was protected your risk was practically zero.