Okay...This is confusing.:dizzy:

So...A couple weeks ago I get a call from this guy I slept with a while back's girlfriend. She told me that she contracted Chlamydia from him and they thought that I might have it, too. So I made an appointment to get tested for it the next week. During the time that I was waiting for the appointment to roll around, a small reddish bump showed up on the outside of my vagina. When the doctor went to test me I told her about it and she checked it out. She said that it was probably from the Chlamydia...But if I tested negative for that, then it was Genital Warts. So I waited two weeks for the results of the Chlamydia test and during this time the bump disappeared [After about two days], and when the results came in they said:

Spicimen:

Urine-Void: Specimen leaked during transfer.

Results:

Chlamydia - Non reactive.

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So she joyfully told me that I was tested negative for Chlamydia...But oh wait. You must have Herpes, she said. She didn't test me for it. Just simply ruled out Chlamydia being the cause, and quickly filled me out a perscription for Acyclovir and gave me a paper with info on Herpes Simplex Virus and sent me on my way. And the week before she said Genital Warts. The bumps just simply went away and never turned into open sores or scabbed...So what made her change her mind from Genital Warts to Herpes? She did no testing...No more looking around. I asked if there was any way she could be wrong and she said "no."

Is she able to just know like that...Is it all legit without testing? Should I take the medication that she perscribed me without knowing for sure?

Also...Why in the heck does it say "[VOID] Specimen leaked during transfer"?
Could the Chlamydia results be wrong because of that?

This all happened through a Public Health Center...So maybe I just need to go somewhere else for a second opinion...What do you think?

Please help. I am so confused.