Hello all!,

I was diagnosed as follows:

EVALUATION OF THE INDIVIDUALIZED LEVELS DEMONSTRATES AT THE LEVEL OF L4-5, THERE IS DIFFUSE DISC BULGING, WHICH FLATTENS THE VENTRAL MARGIN OF THE THECAL SAC, AND ENCROACHES INTO THE INFERIOR ASPECT OF THE NEURAL FORAMINA BILATERALLY."

"AT L5-S1, THERE IS LOSS OF DISC SIGNAL, CONSISTENT WITH DISC DESSICATION. THERE IS DIFFUSE DISC BULGING, WITH CONCOMITANT BROAD-BASED POSTERIOR CENTRAL DISC HERNIATION. THERE IS MILD SPINAL CANAL STENOSIS, AND MILD LATERAL RECESS NARROWING BILATERALLY. FINDINGS ARE EXACERBATED BY LIGAMENTOUS AND FACET HYPERTROPHY.

The neuro/orthopedic surgeon,as per a discectomy has suggested the fusion at L5-S1.

If the other disc(L4-L5) is herniated but is not causing pain,would it not stand to reason that there will be extra stress on this disc,which would eventually require surgery?

Got a coin?

I say that because fusing one disk makes all the other fellas in line work overtime to compensate for the loss of the other one. So yes it "could" get worse, or it may not.

I am 14 weeks fused at L4/L5 (the disk was ruptured). But I also have a bulging disk at L5/S1 that was not fused and left alone. The disk seemd to cause no pain during the discogram and has been showing up on xrays since age 18. I am now 44. So this surgeon said less was better and we are hoping for the best that L5/S1 doesnt go.

You should address that concern to your surgeon on what he/she believes the odds are of the other one going in the near future or at all. The diagnosis.. sounds like it's in trauma also.

Best wishes to you and please let us know how you are doing going forward. TAke care. Tammy:wave: