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leela
02-18-2001, 01:19 AM
Dear sir,
If a person is having generalised seizures every 5-6 years without drugs, does he be labelled as epilepsy and given AEDS
THANKS

coachdad
02-18-2001, 09:05 AM
My husband had one seizure 21 years ago and then another one 6 years ago. He never went on medication- he just felt they were freak episodes. Then he had another one last Sunday. This time the doctors were insistant on him going on medication. They said his odds of having another one have drastically increased now having 3 seizures. He is still very groggy and spaced out from the medication and it makes him nausous but he's giving it a couple of weeks to get used to it. I don't know what he'll do if he doesn't get more used to it. He says he can't function on it. Also, I asked his neurologist at the ER if he is "epileptic" and he said that was a 70's term but that we could consider it a "seizure disorder".

mai_lin
02-26-2001, 12:09 PM
A person is usually labeled epileptic if they have 2 or more seizures in a short period of time - what a 'short period' of time is, is a matter of debate.

A normal EEG is not always indicitive that a person does/does not have epilepsy - as 30% of people with epilepsy have normal EEGs.


Jennifer

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Long QT Syndrome Survivor
ICD/Pacemaker patient
Epileptic
Crusader for all who strive to survive
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