Guy_21D
12-26-2006, 11:02 AM
Hello Again Everyone... Please sheare your thoughts on this one...
During acute HIV-1 infection, the number of CD4+ T-cells decline, occasionally to levels that allow the development of opportunistic infections at that time
Is this true? is this possible? for ex: Is it possible to have 50 cd4 cells in Acute Infection and actually develop CMV RETINITIS??...
Thanx.
Lenin
12-26-2006, 11:25 AM
Guy,
By ACUTE HIV infection, I assume you mean the inital couple weeks after infection with the extremely variable set of "flu-like" symptoms, or indeed none at all.
I think it would be virtually IMPOSSIBLE to get a CD-4 T-Cell count of 50. THAT describes a scenario of SERIOUS and full blown AIDS that occurs years after the acute phase.
With a T-cell count of 50, almost ANY opportunistic disease can get the upper hand. There is almost no immune system left.
Am I misunderstanding your question?
Guy_21D
12-26-2006, 12:01 PM
Guy,
Am I misunderstanding your question?
Hey Lenin, thanx for the reply...
You understood the question perfectly...
Thanx for your thoughts.
If anyone has another opinion please post it here.
Thanks again.
Guy_21D
01-05-2007, 04:26 PM
Hello again...
I asked this same question to an hiv specialist on another webpage and he said "possible but very unlikely"
If this actually could be possible...The person dealing with cmv retinitis in such a short notice would be dealing with another serious issues?? or could cmv retinitis be the first infection before months of having another kind of infections...
Thanx in advance for your thoughts...