I've been married and monogomous for 10 years, then out of the blue, I start getting symptoms of what I thought was a bladder infection - fever with chills, aching back, burning w/ odor when I urinated. 2 days go by, it gets worse, I go to the clinic to get treated. It got strange when the doctor started asking me about my sexual practices, partners, etc. - it was only strange because I was there for a UTI, not an STD & I had no reason to suspect my wife was unfaithful. So when I tell the doc that I have no reason to be worried - been faithful through and through - she tap danced off of the subject and explained that she would run a test to see if there was blood in the urine - if there was, then she would treat me for a UTI, if not she would do further testing for an STD. During the exam she asked if I had any blood in my urine or any discharge - none at that point. THEN I PEED IN THE CUP - big clumps of blood. Looked down in my shorts - green discharge everywhere... She wrote an RX for Ciprofloxacin - I filled it, took it - everything cleared up. Later, when hindsite kicked in, I called back and asked what the test results showed for me, they explained: I tested positive for Nitrates which 99.9% of the time means a UTI and can be associated with a kidney infection. I also tested positive for Leukocytes (blood cells). MY PROBLEM: I can't find anything definitive that explains whether or not I had an STD. My understanding is that if you test positive for Leukocytes, that's a positive for urethritis, which is most commonly caused by gonorrhea. I also understand it that UTI's can also be contracted at the same time/or because of gonorrhea... Please help! Does any of this definitely indicate that I DID have gonorrhea?? Or does anything here indicate definitively that I DID NOT??