brieaukirsch
12-03-2007, 07:32 PM
Ladies, 2 months ago I had my first bad pap reading "LSIL/hrHPV/CIN 1." A month later I had a satisfactory colposcopy and two biopsies from the same 1:00 lesion.
I received my biopsy report today, and I'm very confused. Obviously, I am going to inquire further at my follow-up, but it's not for a few months. I would appreciate any input interpreting this. It reads as follows:
Diagnosis:
1. (cervical biopsy 1:00) CIN 1
2. (ECC) benign endocervical curettings
However, under "microscopic descriptions" for each, it reads:
1. (cervical biopsy) sections consist of fragments of metaplastic and inflamed endocervical mucosa with koilocytotic atypia.
2. (ECC) sections consist of blood, mucus, and scanty benign endocervical cells.
I know koilocytotic changes mean hpv is causing nuclear changes in cells. My concern is WHERE the koilocytotic changes are being found. If the cervical biopsies are by definition exocervical (outside the canal), why does it then discuss endocervical mucosa? Does this mean there IS ECC involvement (contrary to the curettage report) that is not quite dysplastic yet, but showing definite signs of hpv infection?
Or, is this "gland duct" involvement? (But I thought that was almost always associated with CIN 2-3?)
Or, is this the precursor to AIS? (adenocarcinoma in situ)
Is gland duct involvement the same as pre-AIS?
Also, why is there no mention of dysplasia in the description (just "metaplasia"), yet the diagnosis says CIN 1 which is clearly dysplastic?
I would really appreciate if someone well-versed could shed light on the above. I'm trying not to make too much of it until my followup, but the conflicting info on exo/endo is a bit troubling.
Many Thanks.
I received my biopsy report today, and I'm very confused. Obviously, I am going to inquire further at my follow-up, but it's not for a few months. I would appreciate any input interpreting this. It reads as follows:
Diagnosis:
1. (cervical biopsy 1:00) CIN 1
2. (ECC) benign endocervical curettings
However, under "microscopic descriptions" for each, it reads:
1. (cervical biopsy) sections consist of fragments of metaplastic and inflamed endocervical mucosa with koilocytotic atypia.
2. (ECC) sections consist of blood, mucus, and scanty benign endocervical cells.
I know koilocytotic changes mean hpv is causing nuclear changes in cells. My concern is WHERE the koilocytotic changes are being found. If the cervical biopsies are by definition exocervical (outside the canal), why does it then discuss endocervical mucosa? Does this mean there IS ECC involvement (contrary to the curettage report) that is not quite dysplastic yet, but showing definite signs of hpv infection?
Or, is this "gland duct" involvement? (But I thought that was almost always associated with CIN 2-3?)
Or, is this the precursor to AIS? (adenocarcinoma in situ)
Is gland duct involvement the same as pre-AIS?
Also, why is there no mention of dysplasia in the description (just "metaplasia"), yet the diagnosis says CIN 1 which is clearly dysplastic?
I would really appreciate if someone well-versed could shed light on the above. I'm trying not to make too much of it until my followup, but the conflicting info on exo/endo is a bit troubling.
Many Thanks.

