Hi, folks. I'm 50, have one ovary (one was removed), and have been in perimenopause for a while now (couple of years). My cycles were short for about a year (a year ago), then for the last year, my cycles were fairly standard and regular (around 28 days, and missed a period twice in the space of one year).

Then my cycles changed again and my last period was October 7th (so I have missed 3 periods so far).

About 3 weeks ago, I felt ovulation pain, after which my boobs got very, very painful (classic PMS sign for me). Well, now my boobs have been very painful for 15 days. (My regular luteal phase has always been around 12 days.) I'm starting to wonder if perhaps I've managed to get pregnant. Yes, I'll take a preg test, but depending on HCG levels, that might not tell me anything just yet, anyway. So I thought I'd post here and see what others have to say!

All the research I've done indicates that the luteal phase only gets shorter in menopause, not longer. I've got other symptoms, too (nipples enlarging some, sensitive to odors, occasional nausea, hunger, etc.), but those symptoms can also be just PMS symptoms. So the really tangible symptom at this point is the sore boobs for longer than should be -- I should have already gotten a period, having ovulated. I don't really have a way to pinpoint the exact day of ovulation, since I wasn't taking basal temps (at 50, why bother, ha!). According to the ovulation pain I had, it would have been Dec. 23rd, although at this age, I could guess that the ovary was trying to ovulate and maybe didn't succeed until a few days later -- no way for me to tell.

Boobs got sore January 3rd. (My boobs generally would get sore anywhere from right after ovulation until about a week after ovulation.) Had some mild cramping on Jan 6, 8 & 9. Had more mild cramping on Jan. 16. Boobs are still sore (15 days of sore boobs).

Is it possible to have this sort of thing strictly as a perimenopausal symptom? I've never heard of this but am wondering.

Thanks in advance.