My wife recently testing positive for HPV. Since I am the only person she has been with, and I was sexually active before I met her, I must be the source. I have no reason to believe that I have Herpes, but I want to be sure. Thirteen years ago, before I met my wife, I was with three other women, and I had sex with each one just once. I wore a condom each time. Is it possible that I could have gotten herpes even with the condom and not have any symptoms after 13 years? My wife and I have have been married for nearly nine years, and she has hed no symptoms either. Thank you for any feedback. Robert.

[This message has been edited by bobhogan (edited 03-23-2003).]

First of all, Herpes is HSV, not HPV. HPV is genital warts. Secondly, it is possible to contract herpes even if you use condoms, and it has been known to lie dormant in the system, and no one knows why.
However, do you know which type your wife has?
Have you had any cold sores before?
Cold sores are oral herpes, HSV type 1, and can be transmitted to the genitals through oral sex, even if there is no cold sore present. This kind of tranmission has been on the rise.
It's how I got it, so you might want to look into it.