hey lady, just a quick question. i read your reply on greensushi, but i'm not undrstanding something and thought maybe you could answer it for me. if a hetero female is 8 times more likely to catch hiv/aids, how is it that a hetero male is less likely to catch it, and less likely to have it? we are catching it from a man.... so how is it our chances are higher than theirs? i'm having a real hard time understanding it. i have been trying to figure it out since i read it, but must admit.... haven't been able to. i could see if we were sleeping with homosexuals, or bisexuals, but alot of us hetero females catch it from hetero males..... if we are 8 times more likely to catch it, who exactly are we catching it from? how did the doctores and scientists come up with that conclusion? maybe i am just totally naive, but i really don't get it. it doesn't make a bit of sense to me. could you explain it? thank you and God bless!

i think she s referring to the risk PER ACT of intercourse. according to studies, the risk of transmission per heterosexual genital-genital contact is higher for women than for men.

Yes I am talking per act. Take one HIV positive man. Take one HIV positive woman. If they each have sex with an HIV negative partner, it's easier for the woman to get HIV.