mimi83
02-26-2009, 04:29 PM
If a person only has one partner for 4 years and their pap smear was negative on Feb 2008 and on Feb 2009 pap smear comes out abnormal for HPV is their a fact that my partner was unfaithful between Feb 2008 and Feb 2009?
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Pickle Eyes
02-26-2009, 10:49 PM
If either you or your partner had ever had any kind of sexual contact prior to the two of you getting together, then it is almost impossible to determine who exposed whom to HPV. It is also almost impossible to determine how long you have had the virus.
HPV is not a good way to determine fidelity in a relationship. The virus can cause problems within a month or so, but it can also take months, years, or even decades before causing problems.
HPV is not a good way to determine fidelity in a relationship. The virus can cause problems within a month or so, but it can also take months, years, or even decades before causing problems.
mimi83
02-27-2009, 12:16 PM
Thank you, that's what my OBGYN informed me, but just wanted to get other opinions. So if I'm understanding correctly, although my pap smear has been normal the past two times does not mean I did not have the virus?
luvbug412
02-28-2009, 12:20 AM
You can be a carrier of the virus without an active infection being present. Sometimes it manifests right away, sometimes years, sometimes decades. And sometimes, not at all.
Medical science doesn't know why this is the case.
To test positive for HPV simply means that an active infection was found. As Pickle stated, when you got it and where it came from is impossible to determine. We women sure get the short end of the stick!
Medical science doesn't know why this is the case.
To test positive for HPV simply means that an active infection was found. As Pickle stated, when you got it and where it came from is impossible to determine. We women sure get the short end of the stick!