old73
03-06-2009, 12:53 PM
Been married nearly 24 years . . . prior to 1985 (marriage), we both would have had multiple partners . . . in 2003, HPV detected (18 years into marriage) . . . leep procedure . . . normal paps following . . . now, in 2009 . . . irregular pap with HSIL present . . . my question exactly . . . knowing I have not been unfaithful and have questioned husband's faithfulness in past . . . could this point to infidelity?
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old73
03-06-2009, 03:02 PM
As a follow-up to my question regarding possible husband infidelity.
Okay . . . it appears that HPV is a very resilient virus . . . showing up decades after original infection.
Having relocated over the past several years and just now having pap smear with routine HPV results provided: (Present physician routinely checks for HPV in addition to pap smear)
I'm post-menopausal . . . age 52 . . . have tested positive for the following HPV types: 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, 59, 68 (whew!)
I'm not sure what all of this means . . . but, after checking an HPV website, it appears that the only one I haven't tested positive for is 69.
Now, a colposcopy is scheduled for April 16th . . . my assumption is a leep procedure will follow. Here's the deal . . . I've already undergone leep back in 2003 . . . with normal paps following in 2003, 2004 . . .
Having been moved around for several years, my first pap, since 2004, was done on 2/19/2009 . . . once again, positive for HPV.
I've learned that the "ping-pong" effect is a non-issue . . . but . . . having undergone leep in 2003 . . . why would I be showing positive for HPV in 2009?
Possibly . . . all cells not excised? Or . . . and, here is the crux of my question . . . since my husband did go to doctor (in 2003) and was told he had no signs of HPV (I know, it's hard to detect in men) . . . but, could he be infected and now that I've had leep . . . has re-infected me?
I hope all of this makes sense . . . as shared, in my case, there has been reason to believe (many years ago around time my irregular pap shows up) that infidelity may have been an issue. Yes, I've asked him, but he's denied any extra-marital escapades . . . but, knowing that a divorce could have eminent back then (by me) . . . I suspect he may have told me what I wanted to hear.
Presently, I am not interested in divorce . . . we have worked through the tough times (I think) . . . but, with this most recent test coming up positive . . . could I have been deceived? And, since I've had leep done in 2003, does this point to infidelity during the 2004 - 2009 period?
Wondering . . .
Okay . . . it appears that HPV is a very resilient virus . . . showing up decades after original infection.
Having relocated over the past several years and just now having pap smear with routine HPV results provided: (Present physician routinely checks for HPV in addition to pap smear)
I'm post-menopausal . . . age 52 . . . have tested positive for the following HPV types: 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, 59, 68 (whew!)
I'm not sure what all of this means . . . but, after checking an HPV website, it appears that the only one I haven't tested positive for is 69.
Now, a colposcopy is scheduled for April 16th . . . my assumption is a leep procedure will follow. Here's the deal . . . I've already undergone leep back in 2003 . . . with normal paps following in 2003, 2004 . . .
Having been moved around for several years, my first pap, since 2004, was done on 2/19/2009 . . . once again, positive for HPV.
I've learned that the "ping-pong" effect is a non-issue . . . but . . . having undergone leep in 2003 . . . why would I be showing positive for HPV in 2009?
Possibly . . . all cells not excised? Or . . . and, here is the crux of my question . . . since my husband did go to doctor (in 2003) and was told he had no signs of HPV (I know, it's hard to detect in men) . . . but, could he be infected and now that I've had leep . . . has re-infected me?
I hope all of this makes sense . . . as shared, in my case, there has been reason to believe (many years ago around time my irregular pap shows up) that infidelity may have been an issue. Yes, I've asked him, but he's denied any extra-marital escapades . . . but, knowing that a divorce could have eminent back then (by me) . . . I suspect he may have told me what I wanted to hear.
Presently, I am not interested in divorce . . . we have worked through the tough times (I think) . . . but, with this most recent test coming up positive . . . could I have been deceived? And, since I've had leep done in 2003, does this point to infidelity during the 2004 - 2009 period?
Wondering . . .
Mom22greatkids
03-07-2009, 01:55 PM
It does not mean that your husband has been unfaithful. But if you have reason to believe he was unfaithful and not being honest, only he can tell you that. But even then, there is no way to tell when you got the hpv, as it can stay dormant for years. Are you sure that you tested positive for all those strains? I remember when I got my results it said that I tested positive for one or more of the following, then listed all the numbers. I don't think it specifically tests for all the strains individually. As for detecting it in your husband, as far as I know there is no test for high risk hpv for men. I hope that has answered some of your questions.
Pickle Eyes
03-07-2009, 02:49 PM
I agree with Mom22, your current diagnosis with HPV doesn't mean this is a new strain. It could mean that it is a strain you were exposed to previously, but are just now testing positive to.
old73
03-08-2009, 11:28 AM
Thanks so much for your help. I, too, thought it was a bit strange to have tested positive for so many strains. My appointment for the colposcopy is not until next month. I will be asking the Dr. questions regarding which strains I actually test positive for - that is - if they can determine this.
Regarding husband, I have learned that, for men, a test does not exist for HPV. (through further research).
Thanks for assuring me that - although HPV did "show up" later in life - it is not an indicator for unfaithfulness.
Regarding husband, I have learned that, for men, a test does not exist for HPV. (through further research).
Thanks for assuring me that - although HPV did "show up" later in life - it is not an indicator for unfaithfulness.
old73
03-08-2009, 11:31 AM
Through much research, I have also learned that the most likely reason that I've tested positive, once again, is that the HPV was never completely destroyed and continues to exist within my body.
Thanks so much for your help.
Thanks so much for your help.