Originally Posted by aestrella411
Okay, I've been writing on here with all my symptoms and what I've been through. Well, I've finally got what the hospital has on me, the reports for my MRI and X-ray. I was wondering if anyone here can translate? I know the gist of it but I'd like to know what it means exactly:
The L1-L5 vertebral bodies are visualized in anatomic alignment without evidence of fracture or dislocation. The vertebral body heights and signal characteristics appear within normal limits. There is disk desiccation at the L4-5 level where there is an annular tear and small posterior disk protrusion. There is no significant spinal canal stenosis or neural foraminal narrowing at this or any of the other visualized levels.
The conus medullaris terminates at L1-2 level, which is within the normal limits.
Incidental note is made of a cystic structure in the left lateral pelvis which is likely the ovary.
Note that there is a transitional vertebra at the lumbosacral junction. It has an enlarged transverse process that appears to have an articulation with the underlying sacrum on the right.
Degenerative disk disease at the L4-5 level with a small posterior disk protrusion and annular tear but not significant spinal canal stenosis or neural foraminal narrowing.
An AP and lateral view were obtained of the lumbar spine. There are five lumbar vertebrae. No compression or deformities are seen. The L5 vertebral segment has undergone partial sacralization. The transverse process of L5 on the right has hypertrophied and articulates with the superior aspect of the sacrum. The L5-S1 disk space is mildly narrowed. It is likely rudimentary. The rest of the discs have normal height. The pedicles and spinous processes appear to be intact. The sacroiliac joints are normal in appearance.
1. Partial sacralization of the L5 segment.
2. The L5-S1 disk space is mildly narrowed and is believed to be rudimentary.
3. No fractures.
So what does this mean? Im actually concerned with the stuff they didn't tell me, all the docs told me was I have DDD in L4-5 with an annular tear, that's it. Is there something I'm missing or something I shouldn't even be worried about?
These were all done about a year ago and they haven't done one since then! and the pain is SO much worse than before.
Any responses are greatly appreciated. -Anita
Full sacralization of the l-5 and s-1 to my understanding is due to Trama to the spine or impact basically it's the end of the spine its shaped like a triangle between your hips its a abnormal fusion of the vertebre I also have full sacralization I know there is unilateral and bilateral
I have 2 bulged disc's at those points with full sacralization exact quote from the dr is:- in 25% of affected patients, it is associated with either partial or
complete sacralization of L5;
- it may be unilateral or bilateral;
- most common in males sustaining trauma;
- intensity of pain in back & of functional impairment are greater w/
spondylolysis is at L4 as compared to L5;
- incidence of neurological signs compared to L5 spondylolisis;
- progression to Grade-I Spondylolisthesis has been reported in adults,
but severe slipping is unusual;
- neurological signs and symptoms are more frequent, however, when
there is progression to Spondylolisthesis
Disc proyusion is a bulge and yes it is the same as what they call a slipped disc or herniated disc herniated disc leak bulges don't but are just as painful as there is presure on the nerve root ending's depending on how flat your disc's have become
Barone syndrome is iratable bowels and can be serious
Basically its in dr's term and depending on the dr there opinion is generally different if you are having constant pain send you mri's to the laser spine institute of america or look them up on the internet get a few different opinion's and see what you decide remember dr's are human to and do make mistakes