Hi everyone, I have been having pain in my hips, groin, lower back and pelvic area for a about 5 months now. I was recently sent for a lumbar spinal x-ray and just got the results back. I'm a bit confused though. Here's what the lab paper says:
[LIST][*]5 lumbar vertebral bodies are well aligned [U]without signs of fracture[/U]. [*][U]Bilateral pars defects seen in L5.[/U][*]Remaining pars interarticulari and pedicles are intact.[/LIST]
When the nurse's assistant called me to explain the results, she said that the doctor had written down that I had spondylosis (osteoarthritis of the spine). But according to the lab paper it says I have "bilateral pars defects seen in L5" which doesn't "pars defect" mean fracture? But I don't have a fracture. Wouldn't a "bilateral pars defect in L5" be due to spondylolysis (not spondylosis)? Wouldn't the lab slip from the radiologist say that I had spondylosis if I did or is this something the GP determines once they see the actual x-ray?
What's your take: spondylolysis or spondylosis or neither? My next step is an Orthopedist but my insurance sucks. If anyone could shed some light on these results, I would greatly appreciate it.