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Originally Posted by BipolarPrincess So, I have the worse of the two? I've had 2 full bown mania's, which the first one I quit paxil cold turkey and it happened and was using drugs, the second time I was using lots of drugs and messed with my medication again. SO, how does my therapist figure I'm bipolar I from that? That's what I'm trying to figure out right now.  |
Hmmm. Usually bipolar isn't diagnosed when someone does illicit drugs. Note that I am not judging you in any way. I'm just indicating what the DSM (a manual that psychiatrists use) says in regards to this.
If you became manic after being taken off of Paxil, it's possible you're bipolar I since it caused you to have a manic episode. Some people do become manic or hypomanic if they are withdrawn from an anti-depressant.
I have a question. When you were on Paxil, were you also on a mood stabilizer? If not, then Paxil caused your manic episode. When people with bipolar take an anti-depressant without a mood stabilizer, it can cause mania.
BPI is technically considered more "severe" than BPII but only when it comes to mania vs. hypomania.
However, BPII can be just as severe (if not more) due to frequent severe depressive episodes.
Most pdocs consider depressive episodes to be of more concern than manic episodes for obvious reasons. Manic episodes pose a great danger themselves due to promiscuity, gambling, shopping sprees and impulsivity, but it does not result in the same problems that depression can cause.
Also remember that just because you have BPI does not mean your case is more "severe" than someone who has BPII. I know someone who has BPII who has very severe depression (she is someone I know on a deaf and hard of hearing message board I used to participate on) and she was far more symptomatic than I was even though my pdoc and tdoc consider my bipolar to be "severe" due to my voices, delusions, paranoia and rapid cycling.
Long story short, the severity of bipolar and how it affects each of us varies from person to person.