I should have known this would happen. This is exactly the kind of automatic dismissiveness that I've had to endure for twenty years. First, let me say that it actually did occur to me to go to a doctor. In fact, I've now spent half my life going to doctors for this, only to be told that atropine isn't *supposed* to have this effect, and therefore it isn't possible, and I must be imagining things or misinterpreting. Ophthalmologists will just briefly look into my eyes with a penlight, see no obvious growth to point to as a cause, and automatically declare the problem nonexistent, when all this indicates is that they haven't found a cause *yet*, not surprising considering they spend only a few seconds on these 'exams'. Besides, what I'm experiencing is happening to a large extent *behind* the eyes (muscles), where one cannot see in this kind of exam.
The entire behavior of my eye muscles changed during the two weeks I used atropine, permanently. It was sudden and severe, and I felt it happen more and more, in direct response to the drug. It's not as if this is totally different from the drug's usual action... atropine is a cycloplegic and is supposed to alter muscle tension. In this case, though, it caused spasm instead of relieving it. It does occasionally happen that a drug will have the opposite of the usual effect, in some patients.
The drug was given to me for a possible ciliary spasm. A few months after this happened, I found in an optometry paper (or an ophthalmological paper from an optometry library) that even though atropine generally paralyzes the ciliary (focusing) muscle by relaxing it, there are cases where it paralyzes by tightening, though this is not widely known. One ophthalmologist after another, though, states flatly that it could not have happened... how could it have, if they haven't heard of it?