My question is this...
My boyfriend tested negative for HSV-2, but positive for HSV-1. He has been getting a few zits here and there in his groin area (specifically below his belly button and now even one beneath his testicles on the side next to the crease of his leg).
Let me back up... Before we met I had HSV-2 and he had oral HSV-1. I performed oral sex on him and he thought he contracted herpes from me because he started getting zits below his belly button. We started having unprotected sex - and refrained when I was having an outbreak (which I rarely get). Oh yes - he has headaches and dizziness, too...but the doctor told him that could be because of his eating habits - it looks as though he could get diabetes soon.
So then he tested Negative for HSV-2. We think that he kissed me, I contracted HSV-1... and then I performed oral on him, hence giving him HSV-1 in his genital area.
But I am absolutely STUMPED on this. He has been taking Valtrex and Acyclovir for a while now, and the zits haven't gone away. I don't understand it. Shouldn't Valtrex, if not Acyclovir, make ANY form of Herpes go away?? So now he's in tears and is upset because we have been refraining from having sex for the past month and a half...and just 3 days ago we made love (it was so wonderful!)...(and it was HIS choice, I didn't push him)...and now he got yet another zit (and also a rash...)
Any help would be very very kindly appreciated!