This advice seems inconsistent with information I've read on the web. Can't genital herpes be caused by HSV I in cases of being passed through oral sex? I've heard HSV I is milder than HSV 2. If you both have symptoms on the lower half of your body it is considered genital herpes, but if one of you has HSV I and the other HSV 2, it would seem you could infect the other partner or vice versa. I'm no expert, I'm going through a similar situation. I have both herpes I and 2 and my flares seem to reoccur rather frequently. My husband had his first flare after 10 years of marriage with me and was diagnosed only with HSV I even though the symptoms appeared on his genitals. Anyway our doctor encouraged us not to have sex during flares and I seem to be the one with reoccuring flares even after taking Valtrex suppressively and vitamins, etc. My symptoms all these years were confined to the thighs and buttocks(I think). We obstained for several weeks after he was diagnosed for several reasons. We were finally reunited and had sex without a condom. In the last few weeks I started having symptoms more in the private areas and fear that sores can spread to other areas you weren't exposed to if your partner is infected during relations. I'm not really sure. All I can say is you may want to get medical advice on this Question. My husband and I are trying to find an infectious disease specialist so we can vent all our questions. If I find anything else out I'd be happy to post.