Originally Posted by InHisArms
My doctor is fairly certain that what I've been experiencing is a first-time outbreak. She believes it is unusual for the virus to be latent in my system for this long without symptoms so she is leaning towards me recently contracting it.
Ok. Now I'm a little confused. I got the same response from a nurse at a GP clinic yet was told at an STI clinic and have read on numerous sites that those infected may show mild or no symptoms at all for any number of years.
They can't both be right surely?
I have been married for several years now and I have not had sexual contact with anyone else during that time and this is my first outbreak (HSV 1). I was up front with my wife & took my her along with me to the GPs clinic to see what was wrong. As mentioned earlier (without test results...) the nurse at the GP clinic said (in private) that it would be highly unlikely that the HSV virus would have waited this long before a "primary outbreak" and due to the long cue to see the GP, she suggested we go to the STI clinic for a consultation and test. This left me with a HUGE knot in my stomach on the trip to the STI clinic, believing my wife may have been unfaithful. I didn't say anything to my wife at that point but I felt physically sick.
The nurse at the STI clinic told my my wife and I however that many people carry the virus for years not knowing that they are infected due to having mild or no symptoms at all.
I have been "coughing up a lung" lately (lots of phlegm), dieting hard since New Years and lost a substantial amount of weight, been under a lot of financial stress (losing sleep) and found myself a little run down getting by on lots of coffee. The nurse said this was probably the open window the virus was looking for.
Was she just being nice?