Staceylee23

My experience has been unique and I have to confess I'm very frustrated at myself for allowing this situation to develop. I engaged in unprotected sex with a young man who's sexual history I am not familiar with. To my knowledge and recollection he had no lesions or sores at the time of the encounter.
Twelve days afterward I experienced a severe cough and sore throat. Shortly thereafter, I developed a tingling and numbness in my genital region. This discomfort is what prompted me to research and begin the process of testing for genital herpes.
My first visit to a walk in clinic resulted in negative testing for both chlamydia and gonorrhoea, and this was about fourteen days after suspected exposure. Unfortunately the doctor was unable to give me an exam at this time.
Seventeen days after the unprotected sex, I went back to a walk in clinic where a pelvic examination occurred, with no lesions present or indication of any developing. A PAP smear was done and cervical cells retrieved in order for further testing.
In between these two examinations, I continued to experience discomfort, tingling and numbness in my genital region. In addition a white discharge with no odour had developed, and the area was red, though not painful. Just uncomfortable. I did have slight lower back pain, and a mild tingling throughout my legs, arms and torso. However the power of suggestion may have contributed to these symptoms as I was growing hysterical with worry and hadn't slept for quite some time.
I met with my family doctor the next week, at 28 days after the encounter, who indicated that as I had not developed lesions by this he suspected perhaps it was not HSV, but not to rule out the virus and continue to investigate it.
Finally today I had a second pelvic exam at 39 days after possible exposure, and the doctor informed me that there were no lesions present, developing or any sign of past sores. I have had no pain or discomfort during urination. Once again she stated she was optimistic that it wasn't HSV, but there is certainly a chance that it could be an abnormal presentation.
My questions:
If it was infact prodromal symptoms I had experienced, are there necessarily always lesions present during the first outbreak? Would these lesions have been painful and most certainly noticeable, or could they have been so minor that I didn't detect them through my testing process?
Secondly, ordinarily do lesions develop within this time frame during a first outbreak? I do appreciate that all cases do not present in the same fashion, but as general experience may indicate there is somewhat of a norm.
Is there any way to have a conclusive and final diagnosis if I do not develop lesions in the near future? Is blood testing a relevant option for me down the road?
I can't tell you how much I would appreciate some advice, experience or impressions on the matter, I'm rather distraught.