Kind of Odd ?
In 2005 I had symptoms of Herpes. Swollen lymph nodes in my groin area, I believe at least two lesions, couldn't pee it hurt so bad!! Went and had a culture swab, doc said it looked like Herpes, the swab came back negative, BUT those cultures do not work well once the lesions have started healing anyway. So I went on my way believing I had herpes. What else could it be?! Told my next partner, We were together for 7 years, had a son, I never had an outbreak and as far as I know my son's father never did either. Fast forward to last October. My son's dad and I have been separated for about a year. I met a guy that I was into, had known him for a while. After a night of drunken escapades we slept together. Unprotected. I know, I know.. duh! Bad move! About 2 days later I began to become achey, like I was beginning to get sick. Then noticed that my woman areas were kind of swollen. Then noticed a few lesions, began having lots of watery discharge. Went to the doc as soon as I could get in.. She said Herpes. Did a culture. Negative again.. Those cultures are only reliable as soon as symptoms start. I should have had a blood test right then.. I didn't.. I figured it is what it is. Fast forward again to this past week. I finally got a blood test. -1, +2. So I am positive for type 2. What I am confused about is this. I had obvious lesions in 2005, then 0 outbreaks for 7 years. Sleep with this guy then BAM all kinds of symptoms. Is it possible to go for 7 years with no outbreak and then have a horrible one? What if I didn't have it before? Could that remotely be possible? I mean, I had swollen lymph nodes and lesions... wth. Thanks all.