I posted about my situation around a month ago, and some of you may remembering reading it.
My partner and I were engaging in anal sex, and he was the insertive partner and I was the receptive anal partner. My partner is HIV positive and was wearing a condom, but during the sex, the condom broke, even though we had been generous with the lubricant. My partner is NOT on medication and thus has an unrepressed viral load (48,000).
My doctor, though, recommended that I *not* go on PEP for the following reasons:
1. the size and location of the tear. The tear in the condom only produced a hole about the size of an uncooked lentil bean. Location-wise, it was between 2" and 2.5" inches away from the tip of the condom, partially down the shaft of the condom. Though condoms can shift, any shift would not likely be that great to have lined up the hole in the condom with my partner's urethra. Furthermore, my partner said the condom was "very tight" on him, making the likelihood that the tear was over or near his urethra quite small. He also said that he was not fully inside me at the time of the tear (it was definitely partially in, but I'm not sure how far). The hole of the condom was therefore very unlikely to have been near his urethra, and may not have even been far inside me (if at all) when the condom broke. My doctor therefore said that the critical area around the urethra was very likely still covered by the condom at the time of the tear.
2. my partner removed his penis within 1-3 seconds of the tear, further reducing the likelihood or chance of exposure.
3. my partner generally produces little pre-ejaculatory fluids. He had already ejaculated 4 hours earlier prior to this incident, and we had only been engaging in sex for five minutes or so when the condom broke. So it was unlikely my partner had much, if any at all, pre-ejaculatory fluids on and around his penis at the time of the condom break.
After discussing it with my doctor, it was decided that my risk wasn't zero, but that infection was unlikely enough that I was not a definite candidate for PEP.
2.5 weeks after this happened, I got a sore throat for a day-and-a-half, and a few days later I had mild-to-moderate, intermittent nausea and mild, intermittent diarrhea (that I still have to a small degree), though these symptoms may be explainable by the fact that I was traveling in the Middle East at the time. I have not had a fever at all (or as best as I know. I took my temperature a few times while away and I never had a fever when I checked).
I just got tested with a standard antibody test (that's all that's easily available where I live) after four weeks after this incident and the test came back negative.
I know I need to get testing throughout the 12-week window period, but I also hear that "most" people (I've heard anywhere from 60% at minimum to 95% at maximum (the "real" figure is likely somewhere in between, I suppose)) will seroconvert and produce enough antibodies within 28 days to register as positive on a standard HIV antibody test.
Given the nature of my exposure, and the fact that my first HIV test has come back negative, I'm wondering how much I can breathe easier now.
Thanks to anyone with any information or opinions.
From what you describe, i doubt you might have contracted HIV as your testing also tells you that. Most people who are infected come up positive by 2-4 weeks on testing. so you can take a breath. Just confirm your this 4 weeks negative with 13 weeks conclusive test which will be highly unlikely to change.