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muriel5 · 09-26-2009, 06:41 AM

My recent pap indicated....

Reactive cell changes associated with severe inflammation.

Do any of you know what this is? Why this happen? If this later develops into various stages of dysplasia?

Should i be concerned? I've already had my issues and procedures and i'm worried of reoccurance.

Thank you in advance.

Pickle Eyes · 09-26-2009, 11:17 AM

Hi

There could be other causes, but the reactive cells are likely caused by HPV, as is the inflammation (since it is severe). I don't know what other issues/procedures you've had or your age. If you are over 35 and/or have had other procedures on your cervix, then I'd encourage you to request that your doctor be proactive in the investigation of what is going on and possibly treatment. Do you want to maintain fertility?

muriel5 · 09-26-2009, 06:06 PM

no i guess i don't need to preserve fertility...i'm 41 and have two kids. i had a leep for cind2 in march 2009 and this is the 6 mth follow up. i got a better pap at the three mth mark. i was negative wiht no inflammation and a neg hpv tet.

i'm just so upset about this. i thought it would have been done with. when i called the office for results, they said nothing to worry about and then i read the report and thought....what the heck, stuff is still happening.

where can i find more info on this. the hpv test said there was nothing detected...i don't understand.

Pickle Eyes · 09-26-2009, 09:56 PM

When I first started learning about HPV and cervical dysplasia (and eventually cervical cancer), I started reading at the Center For Disease Control in the USA and various cancer organizations.

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