I’ve been wondering this for a while now, and at the time it had me pretty concerned – so I thought I’d consult some of you fine people for some advice.
Me - 25 yo, male.
This past summer, I developed strep throat after hooking up with a friend on a Friday night. By Sunday evening (48 hours) I began feeling symptoms. By 60 hours, I was noticeably ill. On Monday, I went to see the Dr. He took a throat swab, and cultured it for strep – which came back positive. He also said I had acute tonsillitis. He prescribed me a Z pak. I began the regimen that day, but was feeling worse by Tuesday, and severely ill by Wednesday, about 100 hours after exposure. I was running a 103* fever, felt extremely weak to my knees to the point I could barely stand, and could barely swallow, let alone eat. I had not responded to the Z pack within 24 hours as the Dr. said I would - I was really sick. At that point, I returned to the Dr. and was given a steroid pack and an injection in my derriere of ceftriaxone (an antibiotic).
The next day I was feeling great. It was like night and day. The white spots that had been covering the back of my throat the past couple days were gone, temp was back to normal, and I returned to work.
About a month later, I was out with some friends and met a new girl – a friend of a friend. We had a couple drinks, got a little loose, and we ended up making out a little bit that night – but that’s where it ended.
About 3 or 4 days later, she texted me and asked me if I had been sick lately. I said about a month ago. She responded with “I have strep, and haven’t been around anyone who has it, and haven’t been with/kissed anyone else lately.”
Now here’s my question. At the point that she contacted me saying she had strep, it had been over a month since I had recovered from it. How could I have given her strep, if I had been fully recovered for over a month?
Also, the girl I originally got strep from – she didn’t get sick after we kissed that night. So essentially, in summary, I got strep from a girl who didn’t have any symptoms, was very sick myself for a couple days, recovered, then a month later gave it to someone else. How is that possible?
Lastly, the fact that I responded to the injection of ceftriaxone within a day –does that mean the strep was indeed strep caused by bacteria and not a viral infection?
janewhite1 - thank you for your response. I am quite sure I got it from the girl in the beginning of the story. Incubation time is 2 -5 days, took me about 2.5. Lasted for about 3 days. Assuming girl #2 caught it from me (which I truly believe, too coincidental in my opinion to not have), could it be that I was carrying it but not feeling the symptoms? I mean, it's really strange to me that I would go from contracting strep, getting full blown strep throat and feeling absolutely horrible, to being able to carry the bacteria but NOT feeling the symptoms?
Secondly, can you weigh in on the Dr.'s diagnosis of strep caused by bacteria as opposed to a viral infection. Since I seemingly responded right away to the injection of antibiotics (but not so much the Z pak), would that suggest it was caused by bacteria? Would a throat swab for strep react if it was viral?