Help understanding MRI of left hip?
I had this MRI done 4 years ago and it supposedly diagnosed me with Avascular Necrosis but I read somewhere that the bone will collapse within 2-3 years. I have the same amount of pain, no significant changes in my hip after 4 years, so do I really have AVN?
I was digging through old medical records and came across a report on the MRI I had 4 years ago, I'll list what it says and I hope someone can give me some insight:
MRI OF THE BILATERAL HIPS
MRI of the bilateral hips is performed utilizing multiple sequences in multiple planes without Gadolinium in a 0.7 Tesla open magnet system.
The osseous structures are normally aligned, At superior subchondral surface at the left humeral head a focus of abnormal low T1 signal is noted measuring 1.4 cm transverse by 1.2 cm anteroposterior by 0.4 cm cephalocaudad. This is visible only on the T1 weighted sequences. There is no corresponding T2 signal abnormality. This indicates that this is an area of sclerosis/increased bone material density. This may indicate early degenerative arthritis or early findings of avascualar necrosis. There is no associated joint effusion. The joint spaces and articular surfaces are otherwise within normal limits. The right hip has a normal MR appearance.
1.4 cm area of subchondral abnormal low T1 signal at the superior central aspect of the left femoral head, occupying approx. 10% of the articular surface, without articular collapse or associated joint effusion or evidence of marrow edema. This is suspicious for avascualar necrosis.
What do you think?