DogMom22

I posted a really long post about a discogram I had the other day, that I think I didn't respond to correctly as a result of being in extreme pain from the first disc being injected that did not cause my normal pain and am trying to figure out if that skewed the results of the remainnig discs that were tested. So I am going to try again with a shorter version.

If the first disc was injected and caused me great pain (but NOT my normal pain) and I was shot up with fentanyl (possibly several doses) and it still hurt a lot when they tested the remaining discs and I felt only minor pain in my normal area for about 2 seconds and it didn't reproduce my whole pain syndrome (radiation to hip and groin) could it be because I was given the fentanyl right before - or is it because I really don't have a problem with those discs? It hurt when they injected the last 2 discs, but not like the first one and it didn't radiate like my normal pain so I said it wasn't my pain and the test was considered negative.

When the last 2 discs were injected, I felt them and the hurt in the area where my normal pain was, but only for a couple of seconds and the pain didn't radiate anywhere and it wasn't any where to the level of the pain I was feeling in the other part of my body from the first part of my body that was injected. I am wondering now if I answered the incorrectly about my pain being reproduced to the last 2 discs being injected. Was I just suppose to tell them I felt pain in the 'area' - I thought I was suppose to tell them if my pain was reproduced and then after having the awful experience on the other side of my body I was expecting to feel that same kind of thing in my normal pain area.

If you don't understand what I am asking about, just ignore me. I am sorry but I am really confused and am trying to figure out if I should even try to explain this to my doctor or just accept the test was negative and move on to going to a neurologist which was my next course of action if this test was negative.