| | I need Help, Freaking out something serious!!!
My husband and I had sex the night of February 17 (our third anniversary <3), in the heat of the moment we forgot to use contraceptives and he was force to pull out before ejaculating on my leg. The following morning (February 18) I had my period, which lasted four days(through the 21st of February). I havent been documenting my period so I'm not entirely sure of when I ovulate, however, I know normal ovulation is between CD10 and CD16. I also know that sperm can live within the female body for up to 7 days and pre-ejaculate can carry traces of sperm (however this would only happen if he had ejaculated prior, which he did not). Also on March 10 we had intercourse, for a brief moment he entered me without a condom, but the rest of the sex was with a condom.
From what I gather my chances are dismal at best. He would first have to have had sperm in his pre-ejaculate(Not that likely since he hadn't already had sperm released into is penis), said sperm would then have survive in my vagina for atleast 5+ days( and if they did I doubt they would be strong enough to cause a healthy pregnancy), and I would need to ovulate during my period or immediately after (which is near impossible to my knowledge). With All that in mind Im still conflicted.
What are you my chances I'm going to need to buy diapers for a new bundle of joy? Are they as near impossible as I currently think they are? Could I really have ovulated before CD 10?