I had intercourse with my wife two days after her period finished, we just recently got married, unfortunately I was using a condom and it braked and some semen leaked inside of her. she has a regular cycle of approximately 29 days; which may vary by only "+" or" –" 1 day each month. Her last period started on the 3rd of May 2005 and ended on the 7th of May and we had intercourse on the 9th of May.
Since we have no idea when her ovulation occurs each month, what are the chances that she could pregnant? and is her cycle considered regular ?