Help & clarification needed please!!
I'm a newbie here & really need some help from you guys because I'm totally confused!
Following an MRI scan on my knee, because I was in tremendous pain for seemingly no reason, the consultant advised me that I have "early arthritic changes" and "nerve damage" caused by a fracture of the fibula 2 years earlier. He then referred me back to my own doctor who has prescribed Amitryptilene for the "nerve pain" & anti-inflammatories for the "arthritic pain". The consultant, himself, wants to see me again in a year's time.
In the meantime, I requested a copy of the consultant's report from my surgery to support my claim for DLA & am both shocked & confused by this guy's letter to my doctor. He confirms the MRI scan etc & advises of the early arthritic changes in the knee but then states quite clearly that the so-called "nerve damage", as described to me at the time, is an "incidental finding of a REFLEX SYMPATHETIC DYSTROPHY" and that neither of the findings require any further treatment. Am I overreacting here - or should I be extremely concerned by this diagnosis??! I feel a sense of outrage that this man has completely trivialised what, alarmingly, appears to be a prevalent & serious disease. Quite frankly, I am doing my best not to panic about it but panic is getting the upperhand right now after having read so much about it. Apart from pain & immobility, I actually have a whole host of other symptoms, too numerous to mention in this first post, which I now believe to be directly attributable to this damn Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy not least of which have had me wondering whether I could be in the early stages of alzheimers! And no, I'm not a hypochondriac but I do have many other symptoms. Any suggestions and advice from you guys out there will be greatly appreciated.
Many thanks in advance.