reanne117

I don't know if this is the appropiate place to post this question or not. If not, please excuse my ignorance. I have been married to my husband for 21 years, and until recently we have had a faithful monogamous relationship. Three weeks ago my husband went on a hunting trip with some of his friends, and while there he kissed and recieved fellatio (without a condom) from a woman who apparently "services" many men at this camp facility. When my husband returned home he avoided sexual intimacy with me. When I confronted him with his strange behavior he admitted the incident and stated that his reluctance to engage sexually with me was due to his concerns of possible exposure to STDs. My husband has shown no signs of infection thus far, and we would like to move past this unfortunate incident in our lives. Is there a substantial enough risk to warrant medical testing for disease/infection at this point, or should we just let this go medically and work on other problems that this has caused in our marriage?