alright i need some help.
ive done quite a bit of research and the basic trend to what ive come up with is..
precum doesnt contain sperm UNLESS the man has ejaculated prior to the precum coming out of his urethra and hasn't used the bathroom. the extra semen cells will be picked up by the precum which is used to lubricate the weiner.
if a guy were to be fooling around with a girl and he had no condom on but he had his weiner w/ precum touching her vagina but not inside, can she get pregnant? basically hes bare but not inside, and his precum touches the area inside the lips but NOT inside the vaginal opening.
i really need to know please help.
Last edited by r3al gangsta; 11-19-2009 at 07:23 PM.
yeah im worried she isnt technically late yet but still its just like what if i have to go through all that **** cause i didnt think to get the MA pill. i dont think its possible because i wasnt inside her when i didnt have a condom on.. right? and i didnt even jizz because it just sortof happened and it was both of our first times? i just need to know how possible it is and from there ill make judgements any additional help from would be appreciated HIGHLY because you will be influencing someones life. thanks to everyone who will answer in the future and thanks to FunLovingMama for helping me out. again. any additional advice or insight on the possibility is very appreciated
the thing is i only penetrated when i was wearing a condom i was really careful about this. i wasn't wearing a condom but i made contact with the vag quite a bit and there coulda been precum, but none inside. am i all good?