I have a question. My insurance comapny is required to fill my scripts on the generic brand name unless my doc specifically writes on the script "fill with brand" (something like that). So I am prescribed Percocet 10/325, and get Endocet, I am also prescribed Klonopin but get the generic of that, Clonazepam, Fiorocet for tension headaches which doesn't even have a generic name, just ingrediants, and Soma which is Carisoprodol. I'm sure you knew all these names, but are they the same? Am I getting the optimum relief? Especially from the Endocet? Now I can't afford brand name for all these meds. Oh and an update on my NEW insurance UHC. I found out I have no copay for doc office visits where before it was $15 for like my PCP or my PM doc and %20 for visit to behavioral health specialists. NOW my office visits go toward my $250 deductible until it's met, then its %20 of the cost of the office visit, which I have figured will be more than $15! So now at my next PM doc visit in March it will be $106 instead of $15. Ahhhh...love it.
Oh and I am most likely going to have back surgery this year sometime. I am not sure what type, but I think I have asked this before, but at my last rheumy appt she did like a "leg raise" test where I couldn't raise my leg but inches from the floor without me pulling it up myself! And she also tested my foot like having me push up against her hand from my ankle and I couldn't. I could get it up a little but my foot would shake a lot. So she said that most likely surgery would not fix my back entirely. My original dx via MRI was in Oct '02 and she said of course we would need a new MRI to see exactly what was going on back there. My PM doc will be recommending a surgeon as I won't let anyone at the clinic where my rheumy is touch me! But I was wondering what exactly she meant by "not fixing it totally". I didn't ask, I'm stupid. But thought maybe you might give light to what she meant. I don't usually ask my PM doc too much about what's going on with my back cuz he wants me to have surgery so badly, he won't really discuss it in depth with me until I'm ready to go for it, he just wants to keep me comfortable until then, and that's what we concentrate on. Anyway, he wants me to be in as little pain as possible, and will recommend me to a neurosurgeon when it's time for surgery. So I thought I'd post my original dx from my PM doc via my MRI in Oct '02:
herniated lumbar disc at L3-4, and L4-5, and an annular tear at the L4-5 level as well as Foraminal stenosis in the lumbar spine. Patient has radicular pain secondary to these diagnoses. Patient also has cervical spine spondylosis, cervical disc bulging at C6-7, and bilateral Foraminal stenosis at C6-7 resulting in cervical Radiculopathy.
Which half of I do not know what it means, but part of these results are from an MRI on my neck.
Okay guys, waiting for some answers here from the "all and powerful OZ"
Hugs,
tk
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