ok, i will type out the whole thing but i have a feeling there will be SP so please forgive me haha!
MRI Spine lumbar & sacral
Sequences acuired : standard protocol + STIR Sagittal
Findings:
no prior images of the lumbar spine are available for comparison at time of reporting
lumbar lodosis is partly preserved
the vertabra are normal height and alignment. partial segmentation of T10-11 vertebral segments is noted. within L4 vertebral body subjacent to the superior endplate , a central lesion with well circumcised margins measuring approximately 1 cm in diameter demonstrates a target appearance and returns alternating hyperintense signal and hypointense ring on T2 and STIR. On T1, it is homogeneously hypointense. the endplate is intact posterior elements appear normal.
intervertebral discs appear normal no radicular compromise
the central canal is of normal dimensions
the distal cord appears normal and conus medullaris terminates at T12/L1 disc level within the soft tissues posterior to the spine extending from L2 to Upper L4 level. this is amorphous oedema
Impression:
appearances are of a benign lesion. differential diagnosis includes osteoid osteoma; presumably , the central focus may represent a nimbus with surrounding marrow oedema. alternatively, this may represent an atypical haemangioma recommended limited CT extending from L3-L5 for clarification and subsequent specialist referral
i honestly hope iv gotten that right... but this is all i have to go by at the moment..

im a bit fed up of all of it and have no clue what anything at all really means
thank you for your reply and help xo