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Old 10-24-2004, 10:05 PM   #1
Join Date: Oct 2004
Posts: 4
phreedomchild HB User

Hello there - I've posted this question on the infertility board and didn't get any answers. I'm hoping you guys out there can help me. My husband and I have been trying to conceive for some time now. I went though my own battery of testing and recently he had a semen analysis done. The results floored us. The doctor said that his semen had the consistency of urine and contained no sperm at all. This was totally devastating and we were pretty puzzled because he already has a 15 year old son from a previous marriage, so clearly he didn't have a problem before. Does anyone know how this could have happened? In July he unfortunately had to have one of his testicles removed due to an infection, but the doc said that it was localized to that one testicle and that our chances for conception would not be affected by the operation. We are totally confused and really don't know what to do. He needs to repeat the test this tuesday and we're pretty scared. Does anyone know what the next course of action would be for us if these results were correct?
Any help would be greatly appreciated

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Old 10-25-2004, 01:24 PM   #2
Senior Veteran
Join Date: Jun 2004
Location: Cincinnati, Ohio
Posts: 722
wood650 HB User
Re: help

Sorry that this occurred. It would me suspect that the testicle he had removed was the one that had produced the previous sperm for his child. For some reason the remaining testicle is blocked or is not producing sperm for some reason. See if the doctor can check for a blockage in the tube leading from the testicle or determine if the testicle is making sperm. If it is making sperm, for some reason the sperm are not getting out. Good luck.

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